Me: There was also something about Mohamad having more evidence for his existence. It all falls under the same category though so I’ll attack it all now. Ok so blogger basically calls bullshit on my whole argument about the how Scholars would first scrutinize any piece of ancient document for its validity, but whatever he can dismiss and ignore those facts. It’s not the only one. And you also missed when I said LESS than approximately 100 years. Even if it was 100 years having copies of the original document THAT EARLY is unheard of. As I already proved with the Illiad. Now when we look at THE EVIDENCE in regards to the new testament these accounts of Jesus’s life were written WITHIN A GENERATION of his death. THIS IS WHILE THE EYEWITNESSES WHERE STILL ALIVE WITH PEOPLE WHO HAD FIRST HAND CONTACT WITH JESUS DURING HIS LIFETIME. I would also like to add documents about the events taking palce around Alexander the greats life did not appear 400 years after his death. Yet historians and mainstream academia accept them to be trustworthy. The Great legends of Alexander did not appear until another 2 centuries after those first documents. Now contrast that to the New testament and Jesus Christ. Suck ………wait for it ……. On that. In conclusion we actually have better sources for the life of Jesus than we do for most of the major figures in antiquity. There you go support for both the validity of the New Testament and Jesus’s Existence. Now let’s talk about how you compare Jesus to other religious figures(not like there’s any comparison). Mohammad and Islam,that religion is about 600 years younger than Crhistianity. The evidenc e that would be used to prove their existence would be different. Same thing for Sathya Sai Baba. I mean the guy was born in 1925 are you serious? The Blogger talks about relatively recent people in history who’ve contributed to their own religions through their inflated egos the most. This says nothing about any of their validity. Secondly none of these people Rose from the dead, claimed to be born of a virgin, or were son of God. None of these people claim to be divinity in the flesh. I mean isn’t that the real reason it’s so hard for people to swallow the Jesus Pill? The fact that The New Testament documents are so old and agree with each other is a marvel in the anthropological world and anthropology like any other scientifically based field of research is based upon the scientific method which on a few words is close scrutinization. I’m coming back to your contridictions."
A good deal of my argument was removed from the quotes, so, as I feel the need to, I may repost certain things I've posted before that have gone unaddressed. I apologize for leaving out the "less." The accidental omission doesn't affect the argument. And the good thing about quoting the poster in full is that other readers can see what's being left out if I make a mistake. Unfortunately, the poster does not post my response in full.
I'm not ignoring the facts about the copies. I'm completely dismissing the notion that this--and this alone--gives us good reason to accept the claims and narratives in the Gospels as true. The poster comes nowhere near explaining how a large number of copies = completely true stories. The volume and internal accuracy of the copies can be "unheard of" or a "marvel," but it's a simply a non-sequitur to suggest that, therefore, the stories are true. The poster needs to stop repeating his flawed logic, and show the logical step here:
1. There are 5,600 copies that mostly agree with each other
2. ???
3. Therefore, the stories are true.
The poster also refused to answer my question about Dianetics.
As stated earlier, the earliest Gospels appear at least thirty years after the supposed death of Jesus. Can the poster tell us who actually wrote the Gospels? Can he tell us how we know the authors were eyewitnesses or, at least, basing their narratives on eyewitness accounts? Where is his evidence for this claim? Sure, it is likely that some people who were alive when Jesus supposedly performed miracles were still alive by time the earliest Gospels were written, but that does not mean that those were the people who wrote Gospels. The Gospels are anonymous documents, and nowhere do they claim to be written by eyewitnesses. The poster can make the claim that they were written by eyewitnesses, but there is no evidence for this. He can make the claim that the authors based their stories off of eyewitness accounts, but there is no evidence for this. If the poster wants me to accept any claim that the Gospels were written by eyewitnesses, or based on eyewitness accounts, he needs to provide evidence. The below video may be of interest:
The poster keeps trying to make the argument that the Gospels are more reliable than other ancient texts. I have addressed this several times already. This is my third time addressing this:
"The poster seems to want to argue that it is the most trustworthy ancient text. As mentioned in a previous blog, this is relative--it proves as much as calling someone the least oppressive dictator; it does not mean said dictator is not oppressive. Even if he proves the relative trustworthiness of the text, this just proves that the text is relatively more trustworthy than other texts. It does not come close to giving us a reason to call it trustworthy in its own right, and it certainly does not come close to giving us a reason to believe literally every claim in the text."
Let's say that I grant the argument that historians have been unfair in dismissing the Gospels while accepting other ancient texts. All this proves is that historians have been unfair. This still doesn't prove that the Gospels are reliable. Even if I grant that we have "better sources" for Jesus than others, that still does not prove that these are good sources. A source can be "better" than others and still be unreliable. I've repeated this several times. The poster needs to let me know if he disagrees with this point or not. If he agrees, he should drop this weak argument.
The poster compares texts about Alexander the Great to the Gospels. The problem here is that the poster is still using one criterion in his evaluation of historical texts. This is not how the scholars evaluate documents. They do not judge reliability based only on the gap between events and reports. I addressed this in my last post, but he conveniently cut it out and ignored it, so I'll repost it:
"In his response, I would like to see the poster cite sources about scholarly methods and opinions, and be very specific about what exactly scholars use the volume and accuracy of copies to prove. I would also like to see the poster address the relationship between the historical method and supernatural events--since we're appealing to scholarship we need to ask, How do scholars actually approach supernatural claims? I would also like to see the poster actually take the multifaceted scholarly approach, not isolate one method because it supposedly supports his point. Coming to a judgment about a text based on one criterion, no matter how useful a criterion it is, is the antithesis of historical scholarship."
There are many essential factors that go into evaluating ancient documents (link in previous blog), but the poster has completely ignored these factors. Unless the poster is willing to properly apply the historical method, in full, to Jesus and Alexander the Great, it is completely unreasonable to suggest that historians are being unfair in accepting the existence of the latter and not the former. Additionally, the poster cannot continue to use the unsupported claim that the Gospels are more reliable than other texts to support the claim that literally every claim is valid. A person (Liar A) who lies 75% of the time is more reliable than a person (Liar B) who lies 90% of the time. But they are both unreliable. You cannot establish the truth of Liar A's claims by saying, Look, he is more reliable than Liar B. You cannot establish the truth of the claims in the text by saying the text is more reliable than other texts. The only way to establish the reliability of the Gospels is to properly apply a multifaceted approach to the text itself, not in comparison to other texts. The poster needs to examine the origin of the texts, authorship, the nature of its claims, the existence of independent contemporaneous accounts, etc. The poster cannot continue to isolate one method and think this proves a point. This is not scholarship.
Frankly, I'm not familiar with scholarship on Alexander the Great. I can guarantee, though, that academia does not ask anyone to accept any non-eyewitness, unverified, miracle claims about Alexander the Great that are unsupported by additional sources.
The poster completely missed the point of my bringing up Muhammad, etc. The poster was trying to use the existence of Jesus as proof of Christianity and miracle claims. I pointed out that the existence of Joseph Smith would, therefore, be proof of Mormonism and its miracle claims. How old the religion or the figure has absolutely nothing to do with that point. The poster is clinging at meaningless distinctions here. Nor does the nature of the claims about them.
The poster needs to go back to the post and read it again. I also brought up Muhammad, Joseph Smith, and Sathya Sai Baba as a refutation of eyewitness accounts. There are literally thousands of people alive right now who will give a supposed eyewitness account of Sathya Sai Baba's supposed miracles. The poster needs to explain why he would accept the eyewitness accounts of people from 2000 years ago, and not the eyewitness accounts of people alive now. This is merely hypothetical, of course, since there are no eyewitness accounts of Jesus' miracles, and the poster has yet to give evidence for this.
"Blogger: Speaking in terms of physical causality, free will is an incoherent concept. So, even if the poster manages to show that there is "free will" in Christianity, he has to show that free will is even a psychological possibility. See the Sam Harris video from part one. Without a fundamental psychological free will, any type of Christian free will can't get off the ground--unless we're supposed to assume that the creator of the universe has a third-grade understanding of causality. "Free will" is one of those terms people like to throw around without being clear on what they mean. I need to know how he's using this term. He seems to be using "free will" in a way that is specific to his religion (people in other religions talk about their religion the same way). Again, free will is not a Biblical concept, so I wonder where he's getting this. Anyway, the problem with his usage of "free will" is that it's completely contradictory to how this term is used in the English language. Here a few examples
Me: In part one the I speak about how a persons concept of free will is bogged down by human perception. The blogger did not argue my point and even used it against me. I then presented an argument that went outside the human concept of free will and provided God’s biblical definition. As it is understood in the Christian Religion. Then he says oh nope you can’t do that it doesn’t fit the human constructed model of free will. Pick one either way you lose there is free will in Chritianity. Its obvious the blogger knit picks what he chooses to respond to in an argument or discussion. Not bringing the whole thing into context. This is hardly the way to get any point across. Oh and the examples were just some definitions of free will in the English language."
I addressed this in the first blog, but the poster ignored it. I'll repeat: The poster is a human, and his concept of free will is necessarily bogged down by human perception, too. Is the poster willing to go on record and say that he is not a human, and therefore does not possess human perception?
The "human concept of free will" is code for "free will as it's actually defined in the English language." As I stated earlier, "free will" is not a term that appears anywhere in the Bible, so I'm wondering where the poster claims there is a Biblical definition; this has not been provided. I mentioned this twice before, but the poster still has not addressed this. I also posted a link with good number of verses that challenge the notion that free will is even implied in the Bible. I will post it again. Maybe the the poster can respond to these passages, and offer some passages of his own that give me some insight into this so-called Biblical free will. It's ironic that the poster claims that I am ignoring his posts when he has ignored many posts many times, and on this very point.
http://skepticsannotatedbible.com/contra/free.html
I explained in my previous blog why there is no free will in Christianity in the sense of the term as it's used in the English language, not within the Christian religion. Maybe the poster can explain how I lose either way.
In my previous blog, I already said if he wants to redefine free will in the context of religion, that's fine. The poster cut this part out and chose to ignore it. I will post it again below, and I would like a response to my points this time. I am curious as to where this religious concept is coming from. That's all. The poster can define the term any way he wants, but I'm not sure why he and his religion need to hijack a term that is antithetical to how it has historically been used. I can redefine "cow" to mean what we currently call "horse" in the English language, but it's not practical, and it's careless to go around using this term in such a way.
"It's obvious how coercion of any sort contradicts the notion of free will as defined above. The poster is using a self-serving definition of "free will" that is specific to his religion, and at odds with the English language, philosophy, and psychology. Given all of this, I wonder why he won't stop hijacking this term that, in its non-religious use, is completely at odds with the believe-or-burn religion he believes in. If, in the context of your religion, you consider coercion to be compatible with free will, that's fine. You can also consider torture an act of love if you want, or you consider bats to be birds--that's if you're redefining these terms. But the poster should know that the term he is using is antithetical to how it is defined in the English language."
The poster also ignored the following which I would like to hear response on:
'If someone holds a gun to my head and tells me to give them my money or die, would we really say I have "free will"? If the poster agrees that I have "free will" in this scenario, then at least he's consistent. It would still be at odds with the English language, and I see no reason why I should entertain his religious butchering of a term.
But even if he's consistent, I wonder how he feels about the terroristic threat at the core of his religion. A terrorist who gives you free will is still a terrorist.'
It's amazing that I'm being accused of picking and choosing what to respond to when huge chunks of my posts are being ignored, forcing me to repeat myself.
"Blogger : Did the poster miss this the part where I said, "I will agree...only on the grounds that he never existed to enslave anyone"? According to the Bible, Yahweh did endorse slavery, and not once did he condemn it (sources in part one). The poster needs to respond to that. Yahweh leading by example is interesting, though. Slaveholders in antebellum South surely took up Yahweh's example when it came to slavery. We are talking about a deity who supposedly committed near-genocide with a global flood--some example. Let's not forget that Christianity is a believe-or-burn religion, and that Jesus went around threatening people with Hell. Is that the type of example people are supposed to follow? Terrorize and torture people who don't do what you want them to. If Christianity is true, Jesus is at the head of the most powerful terrorist group of all time--a universal terrorist group with a victim count in the billions. That really undermines all of the fuzzy stuff Jesus said in the Bible, doesn't it?
Me: First all of your slavery examples come from the old testament. Since we are speaking in context of biblical values we will continue like that. Biblically the whole world entered into a new covenant with the creator Yahweh. All the specifics of the new covenant are laid out in the New Testament. Ethically Christians don’t believe or endorse slavery. Jesus often argues for the equality of all men. Now Judaism does not include the New Testament, take that up with them. You can’t blame God for how some humans have chosen to twist and pervert his word for their own profit. Secondly the Christian religion is not believe or burn. If a police officer tells you not to murder or you are going to jail you don’t say he is threatening you with jail that’s just what freaking happens when MURDER somebody….Hello!??. You just have to be held accountable for your misdeeds. The Lord is the law and you will be held accountable simple as that. The Christian religion is pure justice. You talk about childish name calling but calling jesus a terrorist is what? If I call you an asshole and I have this whole argument as proof of you being one I’m being childish, but you call Jesus a terrorist and use his words as proof and you’re not? Somebody has deep seeded issues against Christianity and possibly all other religions. Although that statement is completely unfounded and off topic soooo. Like I was previouysly saying … suck it. *Does suck it dance all over counterargument lol.*"
Yahweh was in charge during the Old Testament. According to the Bible, Yahweh was the one who endorsed slavery. According to his religion, this happened. Is this true? Yes or no? If yes, then my claim that Yahweh endorsed slavery is true. Is the poster denouncing the Old Testament? The poster needs to tell us which parts he wants to denounce? Is the poster willing to denounce the Creation myth, Original Sin, the Ten Commandments (in the OT Law along with slavery guidelines), the Exodus, too? Is the poster willing to go on record and say that slavery is morally reprehensible, and Yahweh was morally wrong for endorsing slavery? After all, the poster supposedly does not endorse a practice that his god endorsed. Where did Jesus say to abandon the OT law? Where did Jesus say that slavery was a moral abomination, and Yahweh was wrong for endorsing it? Check the Sermon on the Mount. Jesus specifically said he did not come to abolish the prophets of the Law.
The poster should not tell someone where their slavery examples come from before one gives them. There are endorsements of slavery in the New Testament as well:
Ephesians 6:5-9: "Servants, be obedient to them that are your masters according to the flesh, with fear and trembling, in singleness of your heart, as unto Christ; Not with eyeservice, as menpleasers; but as the servants of Christ, doing the will of God from the heart; With good will doing service, as to the Lord, and not to men: Knowing that whatsoever good thing any man doeth, the same shall he receive of the Lord, whether he be bond or free. And, ye masters, do the same things unto them, forbearing threatening: knowing that your Master also is in heaven; neither is there respect of persons with him."
Colossians 3:22: "Slaves, obey your earthly masters in everything; and do it, not only when their eye is on you and to curry their favor, but with sincerity of heart and reverence for the Lord"
1 Timothy 6:1-3 "Let as many servants as are under the yoke count their own masters worthy of all honor, that the name of God and his doctrine be not blasphemed. And they that have believing masters, let them not despise them, because they are brethren; but rather do them service, because they are faithful and beloved, partakers of the benefit. These things teach and exhort. If any man teach otherwise, and consent not to wholesome words, even the words of our Lord Jesus Christ, and to the doctrine which is according to godliness;"
At this point I need to ask the poster if he has actually read the entire Bible. I am not being facetious, here. I would like an honest answer, because I have the suspicion that I am dealing with someone who has not read the text he worships.
What does the poster have to say about New Testament endorsements of slavery? Morally disgusting verses that tell slaves to take pride in their captivity and forced labor. Would the poster be willing to say that his Bible is wrong, or at the very lease irresponsible, when it does not condemn these actions? What exactly is being twisted and perverted here? These are empty claims. Can the poster show me one passage in the Bible that says it is morally wrong to enslave human beings?
The poster needs to offer a moral judgment on these parts of the Bible. Are these verses morally right or morally wrong. If the latter is his answer, he is in disagreement with his holy text. One has to wonder what else he disagrees with.
The Christian religion is believe or burn. If someone does not believe, they burn. Whether someone thinks this is just or not, does not change the fact that the religion offers the believe-or-burn scenario. The poster did not deny this; he only said that it was just. Think about this: A human being thinks that justice means being subjected to eternal torture for not accepting a proposition.
It is, quite frankly, psychopathic to believe that subjecting people to eternal torture is just. The god of the poster's religion uses threats of torture to coerce human beings into doing what he wants. This is, by definition, terrorism. What exactly is unfounded about the terrorist claim? I guess I can be accused of name-calling when I call Osama Bin Laden a terrorist. I'm fine with that. Name-calling isn't inherently bad. It's a waste of time to call one's debate opponent names. However, I have no qualms about properly labeling characters that are the subject of the debate.
"Blogger: My point is not that we have two opinions, but that we have two opinions that cannot go beyond being opinion. They are subjective calls and, therefore, cannot "graduate" to the level of fact. The poster needs to go back and read through the logic again. Although any claim about rights and obligations cannot go beyond opinion, I would be interested in hearing how one rationalizes the "right" and "obligation" to torture billions of human beings for eternity.
Me: Already explained this. He needs to enforce the law. He is the creator he is the judge. The difference is that he loves us and his laws are for our well being. Even without the bible a lot of what is in there is already considered un ethical without him telling us. But if there was no punishment people would still do whatever. He ensures everyone behaves ethically."
The idea that Christianity ensures everyone behaves ethically is laughable. The religion offers a loophole that allows people to be forgiven for any sins they commit. A person could literally slaughter millions of people with her bare hands, and then sincerely ask Jesus to forgive her one week before she dies, and she gets to go to Heaven. This religion has nothing to do with morality. Two great minds who articulate this point much better than I can:
"Blogger: The poster refused to give a definition of religion, and back up his claim about evolution being a religion. Can we stop the personal attacks and stick to the arguments?
Me: Oh well soooooooorry like it’s that hard to look up the current anthropological definition of religion. Religion as defined in its scientific field of study is quite simply a culture system. Well why does evolutionary biology fall under the definition of a culture system? Well because it is a science and Science more understandably falls under the working anthropological definition of a religion because it is literally it’s own type of culture. Think about it in layman’s terms. A culture defines central dogma’s underlines the not only the values you live by but how you come about those values. Ok me being a strong Christian it would be the bible through my religion. You being an atheist it would be evolutionary biology through science. Or whatever nut article you decide to cite. Bottom line you argue for a religion as much as I am arguing for one. The real point is who’s religion is right, and I’m here to tell you mine is."
These definitions are flat-out untrue or lacking in key components. I provided sources for my definitions, and the poster needs to show me where he got the idea that religion is defined simply as a culture system, that science is defined as one of those types of culture systems, and what a culture system actually is. Not only does the poster not lay out what a culture system is (the poster left out the part about what culture systems actually do), but he does not define what science is and how science is a religion or a type of culture. "Think about it in layman's terms" is code for "think it about these terms under the false definitions that I have simply made up or conveniently butchered." The poster needs to form an argument, not tell anyone to "think about it in layman's terms." "Culture system" and "culture" are not even interchangeable; these are two different terms with specific meaning.
Second, under this vague definition of "culture system" or "type of culture" hip-hop could be considered a religion. Hip-hop is literally its own type of culture. Is this a religion? African-American, Latino, Ancient Greek, or Japanese cultures would be considered religions--even secular cultures would be considered religions. This is not the scientific definition of religion--I'm not even sure what the poster means by scientific definition of religion; there is no scientific definition of religion any more than there is a scientific definition of music. The poster is simply making up these definitions or leaving parts out. The poster needs to cite a source for his definitions, and be 100% clear about all the components of "religion" and "culture system" and show how evolution and science fall under both of these definitions. Here's what he seems to be referring to, and what he is leaving out:
http://www.colorado.edu/ReligiousStudies/chernus/4800/GeertzSummary.htm
"One of the most influential figures in this social-scientific approach to religion is the anthropologist Clifford Geertz. In an essay titled "Religion as a Cultural System" (1965) he spelled out a definition of religion that many others have borrowed, adapted, and employed in studying religion. Geertz's definition gives us a starting place for understanding religion in this social scientific way. It suggests that every group--and every individual--may have a religion, even if no one in that group believes in a god or an afterlife or any of the more familiar trappings of organized religion. Every group has a religion because every group has some overall framework that all its members share in common, to make sense out of life and guide behavior."
The poster doesn't show what those who call a culture system mean, because it undermines the notion that science is a culture system. Science is not an overall framework or comprehensive worldview. Science makes no moral prescriptions. Science makes no claims about the meaning of life. Science does not tell you how to behave. Science does not tell you what to value. Science describes the natural world, and it is up to people to do what they want with that information. Two people who accept science and evolution can have completely different morals and values, and this is not a problem because science is not in the business of providing what cultural systems provide. Scientists or people who accept science--however you want to define this group--do not have morals and values that all members share in common. Science fails the cultural system test on those grounds alone.
If the poster wants to be taken seriously he needs to define and outline culture and then explain how science is a culture.
The poster chooses to simply tell me what underlines the values that I live by. He is making up my life for me at this point. Evolution is not a culture system or religion by any definition of these terms other than the ones he has made up. Even if it is why is evolution or science my cultural system, as opposed to Western culture? Why is the poster ignoring the influence of postmodernism, secularism, liberalism, feminism, determinism, utilitarianism, absurdism, Aristotelianism, and other non-scientific cultural influences and ways of thinking that contribute to my overall worldview and influence my behavior more than the little I know about science? My feminist beliefs guide my behavior more than my acceptance of evolution. Why isn't feminism my religion? Utilitarianism is the biggest influence on my moral beliefs. Why isn't utilitarianism my religion? Metaphysical naturalism and absurdism are the philosophical schools of thought in which I ground beliefs on the nature of existence and the meaning--or lack thereof--of life. Why aren't these my religions? My worldview is influenced by many philosophical and cultural modes of thought that have nothing to do with science or evolution. If I have a "religion," it's a personal "religion" for which there is no name. Here the poster simply resorts to making up my life and beliefs for me in order to argue against a fiction he has created. This is why this conversation must end.
Evolution does not tell anyone anything about what to value. Science attempts to describe the natural world. Evolution tells you species evolve from other species. That's it. There are no commandments, no moral guidelines, no rituals, no practices, no prayers, no hymns, no dietary restrictions, no miracles, no holy land, no sacred objects, no infallible texts, no divine prophets, no deities, no divine system of reward and punishment, no prescribed system of earthly punishment and reward, no superstitions, no dogma. If the poster knew anything about science, he would know that science is not in the business of making value judgments. Science is descriptive, while religion is mostly prescriptive. Everything in science is questionable--including evolution.
This is simply embarrassing at this point. When asked to provide definitions and show how science is religion, the poster chose to make up, or strategically omit aspects of, definitions of culture, religion, and science. The poster needs to stop wasting everyone's time with lies. Can the poster cite scholarly consensus that science is a religion or culture system? I've asked this several times, and he has yet to do so. I have also asked the poster to explain why science and religion are separate fields of study and separate departments at universities. The poster wants us to accept that science falls under academia's definition of religion, but this is completely undermined by the fact that scholars do not define science as a religion. Scholars simply do not agree that science is a religion, so he obviously using definitions in ways that are not in agreement with academia. It's absurd to make appeals to scholars when they simply do not agree with his unfounded, dishonest assertions.
This is nothing but a word game. In order for science to be a religion, religion needs to be defined as a cultural system--i.e. a method of categorization that ignores all the distinctive qualities of religions, that strips religion of its unique aspects, that reduces it to an overall framework or something more akin to a worldview. Then science, although the poster has not explained this, needs to have its distinctive qualities ignored so it can be redefined to fit under this definition of cultural system. Even if we accept the unsupported argument that science is a cultural system, it would be more accurate to say that the poster and I both have cultural systems, worldviews, overall frameworks, not that we both have religions. Effectively, however, the poster would not be saying anything of any importance. He would essentially be saying that we both have ways of thinking about the world. This is as meaningless a statement as one could make. This says absolutely nothing about the merit of our worldviews, though. The poster obviously plays these word games because he has no interest in comparing cultural systems or worldviews, and he can offer no justification as to why he adopts a worldview that is based on supposed divine revelation to anonymous desert dwellers.
Can the poster demonstrate that science functions as a religion for me as opposed to other modes of thought that influence my behavior? The poster also cannot sum up my worldview for me.
This conversation is over. The poster has chosen to make up and butcher definitions of several terms instead of dealing with reality on its own terms. He has also chosen to make up a worldview for me. It's dehumanizing and insulting. Someone who lies like this is only interested in slandering and demonizing the Other.
All these redefinitions are a smoke screen to hide the fact that the poster believes in the sexist, homophobic, ignorant, bigoted mythology of a bunch of anonymous desert dwellers who treated women and other people like property--who "punished" rapists in a lighter fashion than our current society punishes people who exceed the speed limit. The poster believes in a bunch of ridiculous, nonsensical stories for which there is absolutely no evidence. None. If he had evidence, he would not need to resort to the red herring of criticizing science. The poster cannot provide justification for his religious beliefs (well, except the marvelously compelling lots-of-copies argument), so he attempts to change the subject. The poster can claim I have a religion, but one thing I do not do is believe in ridiculous stories about supernatural invisible magic men who live outside of the universe--stories that contradict everything we do know about the universe--without any evidence. The attempt to conflate my secular worldview with his religious worldview is a desperate attempt to knock the chess pieces off the board so no one can win. This argument that "you have a religion, too" is the equivalent of the schoolyard taunt, "takes one to know one." It's empty rhetoric.
The poster has failed to offer any reason why any reasonable person should believe in the absolute nonsense written in a bunch of ancient texts.
I'll leave on this thought:
I could stop accepting evolution tomorrow, and nothing about my life would change. I would still be an atheist, feminist, absurdist, metaphysical naturalist, partial Aristotelian, a bit of utilitarianist, postmodernist, secularist, determinist, etc., with the same lifestyle and set of morals and values.
If the poster stopped believing in Christianity tomorrow, his worldview would crumble.